Target TestContact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
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Botany - Section A
1.
Best stage to observe shape, size and number of chromosomes is
1. interphase
2. metaphase
3. prophase
4. telophase
2.
Genetic self-incompatibility tends to increase
(1) pollen dispersal
(2) inbreeding
(3) pollination
(4) outcrossing
3.
The point mutation leading to sickle cell anaemia occurs:
1. At sixth position in the beta chain of haemoglobin
2. At sixth position in the alpha chain of haemogiobin
3. At sixth position in the beta chain of myoglobin
4. At sixth position in the alpha chain of myoglobin
4.
In oocyte of some vertebrates, the stage of meiosis I that can last for months or years would be:
1. Zygotene
2. Pachytene
3. Diplotene
4. Diakinesis
5.
A woman receives her X chromosomes from:
1. Her mother only
2. Her father only
3. Both her mother and father
4. Mitochondria of mother only
6.
Which one of the following statements is not true?
(1) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
(2) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
(3) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
(4) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
7.
Point mutation involves
(1) insertion
(2) change in single base pair
(3) duplication
(4) deletion
8.
Down’s syndrome was first described in the year
(1) 1962
(2) 1866
(3) 1856
(4) 1863
9.
Reptiles and birds are:
(1) Oviparous
(2) Viviparous
(3) Ovoviviparous
(4) Viviparous and oviparous respectively
10.
Which among the following is not a feature of anther?
(1) Bilobed
(2) Dithecous
(3) Apocarpous
(4) Tetragonal
11.
Sex determination in Honey bee depends upon-
(1) Number of sets of chromosomes present in parents
(2) Number of sets of chromosomes present in progenies
(3) Number of sets of genes present in parents
(4) Number of sets of genes present in progenies
12.
Find out the correct option:
(1) Among animals, insects, particularly bees are the dominant biotic pollinating agents
(2) Often flowers of animal- pollinated plants are specially adapted for particular species of animals
(3) In some species floral rewards like edible nectar, pollen grains, shelter for egg laying are given to pollinating animals
(4) All the above are correct
13.
I. No endosperm
II. Endosperm present
III. Cotyledons - thin
IV. Cotyledons – thick
V. Food is stored in cotyledons
VI. Food is stored in endosperms
Sort out correct points (from I to VI) for A (Albuminous) and B (Exalbuminous) seeds:
A B
(1) II, III, VI I, IV, V
(2) I, IV, V II, III, VI
(3) I, III, V II, IV, VI
(4) II, IV, VI I, III, V
14.
--------------- is the defining feature of living beings-------exception.
a. Metabolic reactions, with
b. Metabolism, without
c. Isolated metabolic reactions, without
d. Metabolism, with
15.
The most obvious and technically complicated feature of all living organisms would be-
a. Sensing stimuli and responding to it.
b. Metabolism
c. Reproduction
d. Defence
16.
ICZN stands for
a. International Code of Zoosporic Nomenclature
b. International Code of Zygotic Nomenclature
c. International Code of Zoological Nomenclature
d. International Code of Zoosporangia Nomenclature
17.
For the identification of the name of species found in an area, one would use
(1) Manuals
(2) Catalogues
(3) Monographs.
(4) Museum
18.
A picture of dividing Drosophila cell through a microscope shows that the cell contains 8 chromosomes, each consisting of two chromatids. The picture must have been taken during:
(1) Mitotic metaphase
(2) Mitotic Anaphase
(3) Meiotic Anaphase II
(4) Meiotic Telophase II
19.
Which of the following is true
(1)cell is the basic unit of life
(2)cell is present in all living organisms
(3)cell is the basic unit of body of organism
(4)All of these
20.
Which of the following is true for vacuole
(1)It is present in both plants and animals
(2)Central vacuole is present in plant
(3)It occupies 90% volume of the plants
(4)All of these
21.
Which of the following vacuole is present in photosynthetic bacteria
(1)Food vacuole
(2)Gas vacuole
(3)Contractile vacuole
(4)Sap vacuole
22.
Endoplasmic reticulumn bearing ribosomes on their surface is called
(1)Rough endoplasmic reticulumn
(2)Smooth endoplasmic reticulumn
(3)Lomasomes
(4)None of these
23.
Which of the following plastids store fats?
(1) Elaioplast
(2) Aleuroplast
(3) Proteinoplast
(4) Amyloplast
24.
The content of nucleolus is continuous with nucleoplasm
(1) Through microtubules
(2) Through nuclear pores
(3) Due to lack of membrane
(4) Due to presence of channels in membrane
25.
Replication of DNA in S phase results in
1. Production of identical sister chromatids
2. Production of identical homologous chromosomes
3. Production of non-sister chromatids
4. Production of non-identical chromosomes
26.
Tetrad of cells is a result of
1.Meiosis I
2.Meiosis II
3.Mitosis
4.Prophase II
27.
Find the monoecious plant
A.Coconut
B.Cucurbits
C.Both A and B
D.Papaya
28.
Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Multiple allelism
d. Incomplete dominance
e. Polygenic inheritance
1. | b, c, and e | 2. | a, b and c |
3. | b, d, and e | 4. | a, c, and e |
29.
Match the following and choose correct option
Group A Group B
A. Aleurone layer i. without fertilization
B. Parthenocarpicfruit ii. Nutrition fruit
C. Ovule iii. Double fertilization
D. Endosperm iv. Seed
1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
2. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
3. A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
4. A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
30.
In which of the following option name is written
correctly?
1. APIS INDICA
2. Trypansoma Gambiense
3. Ficus begalensis
4. Mangifera indica
31.
What is correct?
1. DNA content becomes double during G1- phase
2. Duration of interphase is short as compared to M-phase
3. G2-phase follows mitotic phase
4. DNA-replication occurs in S-phase
32.
Conditions of a karyotype 2n +1, 2n –1 and 2n + 2, 2n – 2 are called:
1. Aneuploidy
2. Polyploidy
3. Allopolyploidy
4. Monosomy
33.
A few statements with regard to sexual reproduction are given below:
i. | Sexual reproduction does not always require two individuals |
ii. | Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic fusion |
iii. | Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction |
iv. | External fertilisation is a rule during sexual reproduction |
Choose the correct statements from the options below:
1. | i and iv | 2. | i and ii |
3. | ii and iii | 4. | iand iii |
34.
The male gametes of a rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female gamete, zygote, and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively:
1. | 12, 24, 12 | 2. | 24, 12, 12 |
3. | 12, 24, 24 | 4. | 24, 12, 24 |
35.
Which of the following statements supports the view that elaborate sexual reproductive processes appeared much later in organic evolution?
i. | Lower groups of organisms have a simpler body design |
ii. | Asexual reproduction is common in lower groups |
iii. | Asexual reproduction is common in higher groups of organisms |
iv. | The high incidence of sexual reproduction in angiosperms and vertebrates |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. | i, ii, and iii | 2. | i, iii, and iv |
3. | i, ii, and iv | 4. | ii, iii, and iv |
Botany - Section B
36.
The phenomenon observed in some plants wherein parts of the sexual apparatus are used for forming embryos without fertilisation is called
1. | Parthenocarpy | 2. | Apomixis |
3. | Vegetative propagation | 4. | Sexual reproduction |
37.
The inheritance of IA and IB allele exhibit:
1. | Complete dominance | 2. | Incomplete dominance |
3. | Co-dominance | 4. | Lethality |
38.
Division of functional megaspore can be described as:
1. | Three free nuclear mitotic divisions. |
2. | One meiotic and two mitotic divisions, all free nuclear. |
3. | Three cytoplasmic mitotic divisions. |
4. | One meiotic and two mitotic divisions, meiotic being cytoplasmic and mitotic being free nuclear. |
39.
Read the following statements carefully
A. Lipid component of the plasma membrane mainly consists of phosphoglycerides.
B. Polar molecules can pass through the lipid bilayer of plasma membrane, therefore they do not require carrier proteins to facilitate their transport.
C. Secondary wall is capable of growth and it is formed on the outer side of the cell
D. Quasi fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall lipid bilayer of plasma membrane
E. Middle lamella glues the different neighbouring cells together
How many statements are incorrect?
1. Three
2. Five
3. Four
4. Two
40.
Seed-set is assured even in absence of pollinators, when:
1. Both flowers ( and
) of a plant mature at the same time
2. The numbers of flowers clustered into an inflorescence to make them conspicuous, colorless and rich in nectar
3. The flowers are cleistogamous
4. The flowers are functionally cross-pollinating but genetically self-pollinating
41.
The diagram below is a diagrammatic representation showing
1. Section of a centriole
2. A cartwheel 9 + 0 structure of microtubular organisation
3. Internal structure of an eukaryotic flagella
4. Internal structure of a centrosome
42.
Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Sturtevant used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes
2. Sutton and Boveri argued that the pairing and separation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to the segregation of a pair of factors they carried.
3. Y-linked genes are holandric
4. 7 : 1 : 1 : 7 as linkage ratio in case of dihybrid test cross means that there are 8 parental and 8 recombinant plants
43.
Each centriole in a centrosome is made up of nine
1. Peripheral triplets of flagellin protein
2. Peripheral doublets of tubulin protein
3. Peripheral triplets of tubulin protein
4. Peripheral triplets and two central singlets of microtubules.
44.
Plants like____ and ____ types, show clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases
1. Annual, biennial
2. Biennial, Perennial
3.Perennial, annual
4.Perennial, polycarpic
45.
Bivalent align on the equator during
1. Metaphase I of meiosis
2. Anaphase I of meiosis
3. Metaphase of mitosis
4. Anaphase of mitosis
46.
Identify the symbols A, B and C in the figure given below
A | B | C | |
(1) | G0 | Prophase | Cytokinesis |
(2) | Prophase | Metaphase | Telophase |
(3) | G1 | S | G2 |
(4) | Cytokinesis | Prophase | G0 |
1. (1)
2. (2)
3. (3)
4. (4)
47.
The correct definition of the genus may be:-
1. Genus is an aggregate of distantly related species
2. Genus is a group of species present in a given area
3. Genus is an aggregate of closely related species
4. Genus is a group species present in a common habitat
48.
Embryo sac of flowering plants
1. Is a 3 celled structure
2. Is formed in microsporangium
3. Has 7 cells and 8 nuclei
4. Has pollen tetrads in them
49.
Congression of chromosomes is seen in
1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase
50.
Select the wrong statement about eukaryotic cells.
1. They have well defined nucleus
2. Possess 70S ribosomes
3. May have a cell wall
4. No organelles are single membrane bound
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